Chapter 2-6 Review Questions 1t622w

Question1 Marks: 2

Information security can begin as a grassroots effort in which systems s attempt to improve the security of their systems, which is often referred to as a bottom-up approach. Answer: True

False

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2.

Question2 Marks: 2

Confidentiality ensures that only those with the rights and privileges to access information are able to do so. Answer: True

False


Question3 Marks: 2

A(n) project team should consist of a number of individuals who are experienced in one or multiple facets of the technical and nontechnical areas. Answer: True

False


Question4 Marks: 2

Part of the logical design phase of the SecSDLC is planning for partial or catastrophic loss. ____ dictates what steps are taken when an attack occurs. Choose one answer. a. Continuity planning

b. Incident response c. Disaster recovery d. Security response


Question5 Marks: 2

A data custodian works directly with data owners and is responsible for the storage, maintenance, and protection of the information. Answer: True

False


Question6 Marks: 2

A famous study entitled “Protection Analysis: Final Report” was published in ____. Choose one answer. a. 1868

b. 1978 c. 1988 d. 1998


Question7 Marks: 2

During the early years, information security was a straightforward process composed predominantly of ____________________ security and simple document classification schemes. Answer:

physical


Question8 Marks: 2

In an organization, the value of ____________________ of information is especially high when it involves personal information about employees, customers, or patients. Answer: confidentiality


Question9 Marks: 2

During the ____________________ War, many mainframes were brought online to accomplish more complex and sophisticated tasks so it became necessary to enable the mainframes to communicate via a less cumbersome process than mailing magnetic tapes between computer centers. Answer: Cold


Question10 Marks: 2

In the ____________________ approach, the project is initiated by upper-level managers who issue policy, procedures and processes, dictate the goals and expected outcomes, and determine ability for each required action. Answer: top-dow n


Question11 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a formal approach to solving a problem by means of a structured sequence of procedures.

Answer: methodology


Question12 Marks: 2

The ____ is the individual primarily responsible for the assessment, management, and implementation of information security in the organization. Choose one answer. a. ISO

b. CIO c. CISO d. CTO


Question13 Marks: 2

The senior technology officer is typically the chief ____________________ officer. Answer: information


Question14 Marks: 2

The ____ model consists of six general phases. Choose one answer. a. pitfall

b. 5SA&D

c. waterfall d. SysSP


Question15 Marks: 2

The ____________________ phase consists primarily of assessments of the organization, its current systems, and its capability to the proposed systems. Answer: analysis


Question16 Marks: 2

____ of information is the quality or state of being genuine or original. Choose one answer. a. Authenticity

b. Spoofing c. Confidentiality d. Authorization


Question17 Marks: 2

Information has ____________________ when it is whole, complete, and uncorrupted. Answer: integrity


Question18 Marks: 2

The CNSS model of information security evolved from a concept developed by the computer security industry known as the ____________________ triangle. Answer: C.I.A.


Question19 Marks: 2

Policies are written instructions for accomplishing a specific task. Answer: True

False


Question20 Marks: 2

An information system is the entire set of ____, people, procedures, and networks that make possible the use of information resources in the organization. Choose one answer. a. software

b. hardware c. data d. All of the above


Question21 Marks: 2

People with the primary responsibility for istering the systems that house the information used by the organization perform the ____ role.

Choose one answer. a. security policy developers

b. security professionals c. system s d. end s


Question22 Marks: 2

A champion is a project manager, who may be a departmental line manager or staff unit manager, and understands project management, personnel management, and information security technical requirements. Answer: True

False


Question23 Marks: 2

A(n) ____ attack is a hacker using a personal computer to break into a system. Choose one answer. a. indirect

b. direct c. software d. hardware


Question24 Marks: 2

____ is the predecessor to the Internet. Choose one answer. a. NIST

b. ARPANET c. FIPS d. DES


Question25 Marks: 2

Hardware is often the most valuable asset possessed by an organization and it is the main target of intentional attacks. Answer: True

False


Question26 Marks: 2

In file hashing, a file is read by a special algorithm that uses the value of the bits in the file to compute a single large number called a ____ value. Choose one answer. a. key

b. hashing c. hash d. code


Question27 Marks: 2

Applications systems developed within the framework of the traditional SDLC are designed to anticipate a software attack that requires some degree of application reconstruction. Answer: True

False


Question28 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a group of individuals who are united by similar interests or values within an organization and who share a common goal of helping the organization to meet its objectives. Answer: community of interest


Question29 Marks: 2

The ____ is a methodology for the design and implementation of an information system in an organization. Choose one answer. a. DSLC

b. SDLC c. LCSD d. CLSD


Question30 Marks: 2

Hardware is the physical technology that houses and executes the software, stores and transports the data, and provides interfaces for the entry and removal of information from the system.

Answer: True

False


Question31 Marks: 2

A frequently overlooked component of an IS, ____________________ are written instructions for accomplishing a specific task. Answer: procedures


Question32 Marks: 2

Organizations are moving toward more ____-focused development approaches, seeking to improve not only the functionality of the systems they have in place, but consumer confidence in their product. Choose one answer. a. security

b. reliability c. accessibility d. availability


Question33 Marks: 2

Information security can be an absolute. Answer: True

False


Question34 Marks: 2

A breach of possession always results in a breach of confidentiality. Answer: True

False


Question35 Marks: 2

The Internet brought connectivity to virtually all computers that could reach a phone line or an Internetconnected local area ____________________. Answer: netw ork


Question36 Marks: 2

An e-mail virus involves sending an e-mail message with a modified field. Answer: True

False


Question37 Marks: 2

In information security, salami theft occurs when an employee steals a few pieces of information at a time, knowing that taking more would be noticed — but eventually the employee gets something complete or useable. Answer: True

False


Question38

Marks: 2

Information has redundancy when it is free from mistakes or errors and it has the value that the end expects. Answer: True

False


Question39 Marks: 2

Which of the following is a valid type of data ownership? Choose one answer. a. Data owners

b. Data custodians c. Data s d. All of the above


Question40 Marks: 2

Which of the following phases is the longest and most expensive phase of the systems development life cycle? Choose one answer. a. investigation

b. logical design c. implementation d. maintenance and change

Correct

Marks for this submission: 2/2.

Question41 Marks: 2

The most successful kind of top-down approach involves a formal development strategy referred to as a ____. Choose one answer. a. systems design

b. development life project c. systems development life cycle d. systems schema


Question42 Marks: 2

Direct attacks originate from a compromised system or resource that is malfunctioning or working under the control of a threat. Answer: True

False


Question43 Marks: 2

In general, protection is “the quality or state of being secure—to be free from danger.” Answer: True

False


Question44 Marks: 2

A computer is the ____________________ of an attack when it is the target entity.

Answer: object


Question45 Marks: 2

A computer is the ____ of an attack when it is used to conduct the attack. Choose one answer. a. subject

b. object c. target d. facilitator


Question46 Marks: 2

During the ____ phase, specific technologies are selected to the alternatives identified and evaluated in the logical design. Choose one answer. a. investigation

b. implementation c. analysis d. physical design


Question47 Marks: 2

The ____________________ component of the IS comprises applications, operating systems, and assorted command utilities. Answer: softw are


Question48 Marks: 2

The ____________________ of information is the quality or state of ownership or control of some object or item. Answer: possession


Question49 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ information security policy outlines the implementation of a security program within the organization. Answer: enterprise information security policy

Incorrect Correct answer: enterprise Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question50 Marks: 2

The history of information security begins with the history of ____________________ security. Answer: computer


Question1 Marks: 2

Attempting to reverse-calculate a is called ____________________. Answer: cracking


Question2 Marks: 2

In the well-known ____ attack, an attacker monitors (or sniffs) packets from the network, modifies them, and inserts them back into the network. Choose one answer. a. zombie-in-the-middle

b. sniff-in-the-middle c. server-in-the-middle d. man-in-the-middle


Question3 Marks: 2

A ____ is an attack in which a coordinated stream of requests is launched against a target from many locations at the same time. Choose one answer. a. denial-of-service

b. distributed denial-of-service c. virus

d. spam


Question4 Marks: 2

In a ____ attack, the attacker sends a large number of connection or information requests to a target. Choose one answer. a. denial-of-service

b. distributed denial-of-service c. virus d. spam


Question5 Marks: 2

Intellectual property is defined as “the ownership of ideas and control over the tangible or virtual representation of those ideas.” Answer: True

False


Question6 Marks: 2

Complete loss of power for a moment is known as a ____. Choose one answer. a. sag

b. fault

c. brownout d. blackout

Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question7 Marks: 2

Microsoft acknowledged that if you type a res:// URL (a Microsoft-devised type of URL) which is longer than ____ characters in Internet Explorer 4.0, the browser will crash. Choose one answer. a. 64

b. 128 c. 256 d. 512


Question8 Marks: 2

Duplication of software-based intellectual property is more commonly known as software ____________________. Answer: piracy


Question9 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is an object, person, or other entity that represents an ongoing danger to an asset. Answer: threat


Question10 Marks: 2

The ____ data file contains the hashed representation of the ’s . Choose one answer. a. SLA

b. SNMP c. FBI d. SAM


Question11 Marks: 2

Web hosting services are usually arranged with an agreement providing minimum service levels known as a(n) ____. Choose one answer. a. SSL

b. SLA c. MSL d. MIN


Question12 Marks: 2

____ are software programs that hide their true nature, and reveal their designed behavior only when activated. Choose one answer.

a. Viruses

b. Worms c. Spam d. Trojan horses


Question13 Marks: 2

In the context of information security, ____________________ is the process of using social skills to convince people to reveal access credentials or other valuable information to the attacker. Answer: social engineering


Question14 Marks: 2

A firewall is a mechanism that keeps certain kinds of network traffic out of a private network. Answer: True

False


Question15 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a malicious program that replicates itself constantly, without requiring another program environment. Answer: w orm


Question16

Marks: 2

ESD means electrostatic ____________________. Answer: discharge


Question17 Marks: 2

A number of technical mechanisms—digital watermarks and embedded code, copyright codes, and even the intentional placement of bad sectors on software media—have been used to enforce copyright laws. Answer: True

False


Question18 Marks: 2

Compared to Web site defacement, vandalism within a network is less malicious in intent and more public. Answer: True

False


Question19 Marks: 2

As frustrating as viruses and worms are, perhaps more time and money is spent on resolving virus ____. Choose one answer. a. false alarms

b. power faults c. hoaxes d. urban legends


Question20 Marks: 2

A(n) cookie can allow an attacker to collect information on how to access -protected sites. Answer: True

False


Question21 Marks: 2

One form of online vandalism is ____ operations, which interfere with or disrupt systems to protest the operations, policies, or actions of an organization or government agency. Choose one answer. a. hacktivist

b. phvist c. hackcyber d. cyberhack


Question22 Marks: 2

An act of theft performed by a hacker falls into the category of “theft,” but is also often accompanied by defacement actions to delay discovery and thus may also be placed within the category of “forces of nature.” Answer: True

False


Question23

Marks: 2

Acts of ____ can lead to unauthorized real or virtual actions that enable information gatherers to enter premises or systems they have not been authorized to enter. Choose one answer. a. by

b. nature c. tres d. security


Question24 Marks: 2

A computer virus consists of segments of code that perform ____________________ actions. Answer: malicious


Question25 Marks: 2

A momentary low voltage is called a(n) ____________________. Answer: sag


Question26 Marks: 2

A mail bomb is a form of DoS. Answer: True

False


Question27 Marks: 2

Which of the following functions does information security perform for an organization? Choose one answer. a. Protecting the organization’s ability to function. b. Enabling the safe operation of applications implemented on the organization’s IT systems. c. Protecting the data the organization collects and uses. d. All of the above.


Question28 Marks: 2

Some information gathering techniques are quite legal, for example, using a Web browser to perform market research. These legal techniques are called, collectively, competitive ____________________. Answer: itelligence

Incorrect Correct answer: intelligence Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question29 Marks: 2

A worm requires that another program is running before it can begin functioning. Answer: True

False


Question30 Marks: 2

Which of the following is an example of a Trojan horse program? Choose one answer. a. Netsky

b. MyDoom c. Klez d. Happy99.exe


Question31 Marks: 2

Cyberterrorists hack systems to conduct terrorist activities via network or Internet pathways. Answer: True

False


Question32 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is an application error that occurs when more data is sent to a program buffer than it is designed to handle. Answer: buffer overrun


Question33 Marks: 2

A virus or worm can have a payload that installs a(n) ____________________ door or trap door component in a system, which allows the attacker to access the system at will with special privileges. Answer: back


Question34 Marks: 2

____ are machines that are directed remotely (usually by a transmitted command) by the attacker to participate in an attack. Choose one answer. a. Drones

b. Helpers c. Zombies d. Servants


Question35 Marks: 2

Script ____________________ are hackers of limited skill who use expertly written software to attack a system. Answer: kiddies


Question36 Marks: 2

The expert hacker sometimes is called ____________________ hacker. Answer: elite


Question37 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ hacks the public telephone network to make free calls or disrupt services. Answer: phreaker


Question38 Marks: 2

DoS attacks cannot be launched against routers. Answer: True

False


Question39 Marks: 2

There are generally two skill levels among hackers: expert and ____. Choose one answer. a. novice

b. journeyman c. packet monkey d. professional


Question40 Marks: 2

The ____ hijacking attack uses IP spoofing to enable an attacker to impersonate another entity on the network. Choose one answer. a. WWW

b. T c. FTP d. HTTP


Question41 Marks: 2

Hackers are “people who use and create computer software to gain access to information illegally.” Answer: True

False


Question42 Marks: 2

A(n) polymorphic threat is one that over time changes the way it appears to antivirus software programs, making it undetectable by techniques that look for preconfigured signatures. Answer: True

False


Question43 Marks: 2

Attacks conducted by scripts are usually unpredictable. Answer: True

False


Question44 Marks: 2

According to Mark Pollitt, ____ is the premeditated, politically motivated attacks against information, computer systems, computer programs, and data which result in violence against noncombatant targets by subnational groups or clandestine agents. Choose one answer. a. infoterrorism

b. cyberterrorism c. hacking d. cracking


Question45 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is an identified weakness in a controlled system, where controls are not present or are no longer effective. Answer: vulnerability


Question46 Marks: 2

A timing attack involves the interception of cryptographic elements to determine keys and encryption algorithms. Answer: True

False


Question47 Marks: 2

A worm can deposit copies of itself onto all Web servers that the infected system can reach, so that s who subsequently visit those sites become infected. Answer:

True

False


Question48 Marks: 2

The timing attackexplores the contents of a Web browser’s ____________________. Answer: cache


Question49 Marks: 2

A sniffer program shows all the data going by on a network segment including s, the data inside files—such as word-processing documents—and screens full of sensitive data from applications. Answer: True

False


Question50 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is an act that takes advantage of a vulnerability to compromise a controlled system. Answer: attack


Question1 Marks: 2

The ____________________ is a respected professional society that was established in 1947 as “the world’s first educational and scientific computing society.” Answer:

Association of Computing Machinery


Question2 Marks: 2

Laws and policies and their associated penalties only deter if which of the following conditions is present? Choose one answer. a. Fear of penalty

b. Probability of being caught c. Probability of penalty being istered d. All of the above


Question3 Marks: 2

Cultural differences can make it easy to determine what is and is not ethical—especially when it comes to the use of computers. Answer: True

False


Question4 Marks: 2

The ____________________ Act of 2001 provides law enforcement agencies with broader latitude in order to combat terrorism-related activities. Answer: USA PATRIOT


Question5 Marks: 2

Which of the following countries reported generally intolerant attitudes toward personal use of organizational computing resources? Choose one answer. a. Australia

b. United States c. Singapore d. Sweden


Question6 Marks: 2

____ attempts to prevent trade secrets from being illegally shared. Choose one answer. a. Electronic Communications Privacy Act

b. Sarbanes-Oxley Act c. Financial Services Modernization Act d. Economic Espionage Act


Question7 Marks: 2

The Privacy of Customer Information Section of the common carrier regulation states that any proprietary information shall be used explicitly for providing services, and not for any ____ purposes. Choose one answer. a. troubleshooting

b. billing c. customer service d. marketing


Question8 Marks: 2

Established in January 2001, the National InfraGard Program began as a cooperative effort between the FBI’s Cleveland Field Office and local technology professionals. Answer: True

False


Question9 Marks: 2

The ____ Portability and ability Act Of 1996, also known as the Kennedy-Kassebaum Act, protects the confidentiality and security of health care data by establishing and enforcing standards and by standardizing electronic data interchange. Choose one answer. a. Customer

b. Health Insurance c. Computer d. Telecommunications


Question10 Marks: 2

Studies have reported that the Pacific Rim countries of Singapore and Hong Kong are hotbeds of software piracy. Answer: True

False


Question11 Marks: 2

____________________ are the fixed moral attitudes or customs of a particular group. Answer: Cultural mores


Question12 Marks: 2

Every state has implemented uniform laws and regulations placed on organizational use of computer technology. Answer: True

False


Question13 Marks: 2

HIPAA specifies particular security technologies for each of the security requirements to ensure the privacy of the health-care information. Answer: True

False


Question14 Marks: 2

The ____________________ Association is a professional association that focuses on auditing, control, and security and whose hip comprises both technical and managerial professionals.

Answer: Information Systems Audit and Control


Question15 Marks: 2

The ____________________ Act of 1996 attempts to prevent trade secrets from being illegally shared. Answer: Economic Espionage


Question16 Marks: 2

The ____________________ Act of 1986 is a collection of statutes that regulates the interception of wire, electronic, and oral communications. Answer: Electronic Communications Privacy


Question17 Marks: 2

Which of the following acts is also widely known as the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act? Choose one answer. a. Financial Services Modernization Act

b. Communications Act c. Computer Security Act d. Economic Espionage Act


Question18 Marks: 2

What is the subject of the Computer Security Act? Choose one answer. a. Federal Agency Information Security

b. Telecommunications Common Carriers c. Cryptography Software Vendors d. Banking Industry


Question19 Marks: 2

Software license infringement is also often called software ____________________. Answer: piracy


Question20 Marks: 2

Civil law addresses activities and conduct harmful to society and is actively enforced by the state. Answer: True

False


Question21 Marks: 2

Intellectual privacy is recognized as a protected asset in the United States. Answer: True

False


Question22 Marks: 2

What is the subject of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act? Choose one answer. a. Banking

b. Financial Reporting c. Privacy d. Trade secrets


Question23 Marks: 2

Key studies reveal that the overriding factor in leveling the ethical perceptions within a small population is ____________________. Answer: education


Question24 Marks: 2

Deterrence can prevent an illegal or unethical activity from occurring. Answer: True

False


Question25 Marks: 2

The ____________________ is the American contribution to an international effort to reduce the impact of copyright, trademark, and privacy infringement, especially when accomplished via the removal of technological copyright protection measures. Answer: Digital Millennium Copyright Act


Question26 Marks: 2

The Computer ____ and Abuse Act of 1986 is the cornerstone of many computer-related federal laws and enforcement efforts. Choose one answer. a. Violence

b. Fraud c. Theft d. Usage


Question27 Marks: 2

The Council of Europe adopted the Convention of CyberCrime in ____. Choose one answer. a. 1976

b. 1986 c. 1998 d. 2001


Question28 Marks: 2

The ____________________2 manages a body of knowledge on information security and isters and evaluates examinations for information security certifications. Answer: (ISC)


Question29 Marks: 2

In a study on software licence infringement, those from United States were significantly more permissive. Answer: True

False


Question30 Marks: 2

Studies on ethics and computer use reveal that people of different nationalities have different perspectives; difficulties arise when one nationality’s ethical behavior violates the ethics of another national group. Answer: True

False


Question31 Marks: 2

The ____________________ Act of 1966 allows any person to request access to federal agency records or information not determined to be a matter of national security. Answer: Freedom of Information


Question32 Marks: 2

Individuals with authorization and privileges to manage information within the organization are most likely to cause harm or damage ____. Choose one answer. a. with intent

b. by accident c. with malice d. with negligence


Question33 Marks: 2

Criminal or unethical ____ goes to the state of mind of the individual performing the act. Choose one answer. a. attitude

b. intent c. accident d. ignorance


Question34 Marks: 2

Which of the following acts defines and formalizes laws to counter threats from computer related acts and offenses? Choose one answer. a. Electronic Communications Privacy Act of 1986

b. Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) c. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act d. Federal Privacy Act of 1974


Question35 Marks: 2

According to the National Information Infrastructure Protection Act of 1996, the severity of the penalty for computer crimes depends on the value of the information obtained and whether the offense is judged to have been committed for each of the following except ____. Choose one answer. a. for purposes of commercial advantage

b. for private financial gain c. to harass d. in furtherance of a criminal act


Question36 Marks: 2

The National Information Infrastructure Protection Act of 1996 modified which Act? Choose one answer. a. USA PATRIOT Act

b. USA PATRIOT Improvement and Reauthorization Act c. Computer Security Act

d. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act


Question37 Marks: 2

Family law, commercial law, and labor law are all encomed by ____________________ law. Answer: private


Question38 Marks: 2

The ____________________ Act seeks to improve the reliability and accuracy of financial reporting, as well as increase the ability of corporate governance, in publicly traded companies. Answer: Sarbanes-Oxley


Question39 Marks: 2

Which of the following acts is a collection of statutes that regulate the interception of wire, electronic, and oral communications? Choose one answer. a. Electronic Communications Privacy Act

b. Financial Services Modernization Ac c. Sarbanes-Oxley Act d. Economic Espionage Act


Question40 Marks: 2

The ____________________ Act of 1999 contains a number of provisions focusing on facilitating affiliation among banks, securities firms, and insurance companies. Answer: Financial Services Modernization


Question41 Marks: 2

____________________ are rules that mandate or prohibit certain behavior in society. Answer: Law s


Question42 Marks: 2

Due care requires that an organization make a valid effort to protect others and continually maintain this level of effort. Answer: True

False


Question43 Marks: 2

Ethics define socially acceptable behaviors. Answer: True

False


Question44 Marks: 2

Individuals with authorization and privileges to manage information within the organization are most likely to cause harm or damage by accident. Answer: True

False


Question45 Marks: 2

In 1995 the Directive 95/46/EC was adopted by the European Union. Answer: True

False


Question46 Marks: 2

The low overall degree of tolerance for ____________________ system use may be a function of the easy association between the common crimes of breaking and entering, tresing, theft, and destruction of property to their computer-related counterparts. Answer: illicit


Question47 Marks: 2

The ____ of 1999 provides guidance on the use of encryption and provides protection from government intervention. Choose one answer. a. Sarbanes-Oxley Act

b. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act c. U.S.A. Patriot Act

d. Security and Freedom through Encryption Act


Question48 Marks: 2

DHS is made up of three directorates. Answer: True

False


Question49 Marks: 2

Guidelines that describe acceptable and unacceptable employee behaviors in the workplace are known as ____________________. Answer: policies


Question50 Marks: 2

Privacy is not absolute freedom from observation, but rather is a more precise “state of being free from unsanctioned intrusion.” Answer: True

False


Question1 Marks: 2

A(n) qualitative assessment is based on characteristics that do not use numerical measures. Answer:

True

False


Question2 Marks: 2

A(n) exposure factor is the expected percentage of loss that would occur from a particular attack. Answer: True

False


Question3 Marks: 2

Management of classified data includes its storage and ____. Choose one answer. a. distribution

b. portability c. destruction d. All of the above


Question4 Marks: 2

The difference between an organization’s measures and those of others is often referred to as a performance ____________________. Answer: gap


Question5

Marks: 2

The ____ strategy attempts to shift risk to other assets, other processes, or other organizations. Choose one answer. a. transfer control

b. defend control c. accept control d. mitigate control


Question6 Marks: 2

ALE determines whether or not a particular control alternative is worth its cost. Answer: True

False


Question7 Marks: 2

Operational ____________________ analysis examines acceptance and , management acceptance and , and the overall requirements of the organization’s stakeholders. Answer: feasibility


Question8 Marks: 2

Cost ____________________ is the process of preventing the financial impact of an incident by implementing a control. Answer:

avoidance


Question9 Marks: 2

Qualitative-based measures are comparisons based on numerical standards, such as numbers of successful attacks. Answer: True

False


Question10 Marks: 2

The concept of competitive ____ refers to falling behind the competition. Choose one answer. a. disadvantage

b. drawback c. failure d. shortcoming


Question11 Marks: 2

Benefit is the value that an organization realizes by using controls to prevent losses associated with a specific vulnerability. Answer: True

False


Question12 Marks: 2

In the U.S. military classification scheme, ____ data is any information or material the unauthorized disclosure of which reasonably could be expected to cause damage to the national security. Choose one answer. a. confidential

b. secret c. top secret d. sensitive


Question13 Marks: 2

CBAs cannot be calculated after controls have been functioning for a time. Answer: True

False


Question14 Marks: 2

The ____ security policy is a planning document that outlines the process of implementing security in the organization. Choose one answer. a. program

b. agency c. issue-specific d. system-specific


Question15 Marks: 2

The military uses a _____-level classification scheme. Choose one answer. a. three

b. four c. five d. six


Question16 Marks: 2

Major risk is a combined function of (1) a threat less the effect of threat-reducing safeguards, (2) a vulnerability less the effect of vulnerability reducing safeguards, and (3) an asset less the effect of asset value-reducing safeguards. Answer: True

False


Question17 Marks: 2

Asset ____________________ is the process of asg financial value or worth to each information asset. Answer: valuation


Question18

Marks: 2

After identifying and performing the preliminary classification of an organization’s information assets, the analysis phase moves on to an examination of the ____________________ facing the organization. Answer: information assets

Incorrect Correct answer: threats Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question19 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a “value or profile of a performance metric against which changes in the performance metric can be usefully compared.” Answer: baseline


Question20 Marks: 2

Due ____________________ is the demonstration that the organization is diligent in ensuring that the implemented standards continue to provide the required level of protection. Answer: diligence


Question21 Marks: 2

The ____________________ control strategy attempts to reduce the impact caused by the exploitation of vulnerability through planning and preparation. Answer: mitigate


Question22

Marks: 2

Overriding an employee’s security ____________________ requires that the need-to-know standard be met. Answer: clearance


Question23 Marks: 2

Many corporations use a ____ to help secure the confidentiality and integrity of information. Choose one answer. a. system classification scheme

b. data restoration scheme c. data hierarchy d. data classification scheme


Question24 Marks: 2

Of the three types of mitigation plans, the ____________________ plan is the most strategic and long term. Answer: business continuity


Question25 Marks: 2

A best practice proposed for a small home office setting is appropriate to help design control strategies for a multinational company. Answer:

True

False


Question26 Marks: 2

Best business practices are often called recommended practices. Answer: True

False


Question27 Marks: 2

The ____ strategy attempts to prevent the exploitation of the vulnerability. Choose one answer. a. suspend control

b. defend control c. transfer control d. defined control


Question28 Marks: 2

Risk ____ is the application of controls to reduce the risks to an organization’s data and information systems. Choose one answer. a. management

b. control

c. identification d. security


Question29 Marks: 2

A single loss ____________________ is the calculation of the value associated with the most likely loss from an attack. Answer: expentancy

Incorrect Correct answer: expectancy Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question30 Marks: 2

Security ____________________ are the technical implementations of the policies defined by the organization. Answer: technologies


Question31 Marks: 2

Program-specific policies address the specific implementations or applications of which s should be aware. Answer: True

False


Question32 Marks: 2

The first phase of risk management is ____.

Choose one answer. a. risk identification

b. design c. risk control d. risk evaluation


Question33 Marks: 2

Likelihood risk is the risk to the information asset that remains even after the application of controls. Answer: True

False


Question34 Marks: 2

For hardware devices, the ____________________ number is used by the network operating system to identify a specific network device. Answer: MAC address


Question35 Marks: 2

The actions an organization can and perhaps should take while an incident is in progress should be specified in a document called the ____ plan. Choose one answer. a. BC

b. DR c. IR d. BR


Question36 Marks: 2

The formal decision making process used when consider the economic feasibility of implementing information security controls and safeguards is called a(n) ____. Choose one answer. a. ARO

b. CBA c. ALE d. SLE


Question37 Marks: 2

Mutually exclusive means that all information assets must fit in the list somewhere. Answer: True

False


Question38 Marks: 2

The ____ security policy is an executive-level document that outlines the organization’s approach and attitude towards information security and relates the strategic value of information security within the organization. Choose one answer.

a. general

b. agency c. issue-specific d. system-specific


Question39 Marks: 2

A certificate authority should actually be categorized as a software security component. Answer: True

False


Question40 Marks: 2

Policies are documents that specify an organization’s approach to security. Answer: True

False


Question41 Marks: 2

The ____ strategy is the choice to do nothing to protect a vulnerability and to accept the outcome of its exploitation. Choose one answer. a. avoidance of risk

b. transference

c. mitigation d. accept control


Question42 Marks: 2

In a(n) _____, each information asset is assigned a score for each of a set of assigned critical factor. Choose one answer. a. OPSEC

b. COMSEC c. weighted factor analysis d. data classification scheme


Question43 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ desk policy requires that employees secure all information in appropriate storage containers at the end of each day. Answer: clean


Question44 Marks: 2

Behavioral feasibility is also known as ____________________. Answer: operational feasibility


Question45 Marks: 2

Once the inventory and value assessment are complete, you can prioritize each asset using a straightforward process known as ____________________ analysis. Answer: w eighted factor


Question46 Marks: 2

A(n) disaster recovery plan dictates the actions an organization can and perhaps should take while an incident is in progress. Answer: True

False


Question47 Marks: 2

A(n) ____ is an authorization issued by an organization for the repair, modification, or update of a piece of equipment. Choose one answer. a. IP

b. FCO c. CTO d. HTTP


Question48 Marks: 2

All information that has been approved by management for public release has a(n) ____________________ classification.

Answer: external


Question49 Marks: 2

Comprehensive means that an information asset should fit in only one category. Answer: True

False


Question50 Marks: 2

Risk ____ defines the quantity and nature of risk that organizations are willing to accept as they evaluate the tradeoffs between perfect security and unlimited accessibility. Choose one answer. a. benefit

b. appetite c. acceptance d. avoidance


Question1 Marks: 2

The application firewall is also known as a(n) ____________________ server. Answer: proxy

Correct


Question2 Marks: 2

A Web server is often exposed to higher levels of risk when placed in the DMZ than when it is placed in the untrusted network. Answer: True

False


Question3 Marks: 2

The architecture of a(n) ____________________ firewall provides a DMZ. Answer: screened subnet


Question4 Marks: 2

A packet’s structure is independent from the nature of the packet. Answer: True

False


Question5 Marks: 2

In recent years, the broadband router devices that can function as packet-filtering firewalls have been enhanced to combine the features of ____. Choose one answer. a. UDPs

b. MACs

c. WANs d. WAPs


Question6 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is an information security program that prevents specific types of information from moving between the outside world and the inside world. Answer: firew all


Question7 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ private network is a private and secure network connection between systems that uses the data communication capability of an unsecured and public network. Answer: virtual


Question8 Marks: 2

A trusted VPN is also known as a(n) ____________________ VPN. Answer: legacy


Question9 Marks: 2

SESAME uses ____________________ key encryption to distribute secret keys. Answer:

public


Question10 Marks: 2

Traces, formally known as ICMP Echo requests, are used by internal systems s to ensure that clients and servers can communicate. Answer: True

False


Question11 Marks: 2

In Kerberos, a(n) ____________________ is an identification card for a particular client that verifies to the server that the client is requesting services and that the client is a valid member of the Kerberos system and therefore authorized to receive services. Answer: ticket


Question12 Marks: 2

Static filtering is common in network routers and gateways. Answer: True

False


Question13 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ filter is a software filter — technically not a firewall — that allows s to restrict access to content from within a network. Answer:

content


Question14 Marks: 2

The circuit gateway firewall operates at the ____________________ layer. Answer: transport


Question15 Marks: 2

SESAME may be obtained free of charge from MIT. Answer: True

False


Question16 Marks: 2

In ____ mode, the data within an IP packet is encrypted, but the header information is not. Choose one answer. a. tunnel

b. transport c. public d. symmetric


Question17 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ dialer is an automatic phone-dialing program that dials every number in a configured range, and checks to see if a person, answering machine, or modem picks up. Answer: w ar


Question18 Marks: 2

The restrictions most commonly implemented in packet-filtering firewalls are based on ____. Choose one answer. a. IP source and destination address

b. Direction (inbound or outbound) c. T or UDP source and destination port requests d. All of the above


Question19 Marks: 2

A packet-____________________ firewall installed on a T/IP based network typically functions at the IP level and determines whether to drop a packet (deny) or forward it to the next network connection (allow) based on the rules programmed into the firewall. Answer: filtering


Question20 Marks: 2

The dominant architecture used to secure network access today is the ____ firewall. Choose one answer.

a. static

b. bastion c. unlimited d. screened subnet


Question21 Marks: 2

A(n) perimeter is a segment of the DMZ where additional authentication and authorization controls are put into place to provide services that are not available to the general public. Answer: True

False


Question22 Marks: 2

The proxy server is often placed in an unsecured area of the network or is placed in the ____ zone. Choose one answer. a. fully trusted

b. hot c. demilitarized d. cold


Question23 Marks: 2

A content filter is essentially a set of scripts or programs that restricts access to certain networking protocols and Internet locations.

Answer: True

False


Question24 Marks: 2

Simple firewall models enforce address ____________________, which are rules designed to prohibit packets with certain addresses or partial addresses from ing through the device. Answer: restrictions


Question25 Marks: 2

A VPN allows a to use the Internet into a private network. Answer: True

False


Question26 Marks: 2

First generation firewalls are application-level firewalls. Answer: True

False


Question27 Marks: 2

A(n) ____ is “a private data network that makes use of the public telecommunication infrastructure, maintaining privacy through the use of a tunneling protocol and security procedures.” Choose one answer.

a. SVPN

b. VPN c. SESAME d. KERBES


Question28 Marks: 2

A content filter is technically a firewall. Answer: True

False


Question29 Marks: 2

In most common implementation models, the content filter has two components: ____. Choose one answer. a. encryption and decryption

b. filtering and encoding c. rating and decryption d. rating and filtering


Question30 Marks: 2

Circuit gateway firewalls prevent direct connections between one network and another. Answer:

True

False


Question31 Marks: 2

Since the bastion host stands as a sole defender on the network perimeter, it is commonly referred to as the ____ host. Choose one answer. a. trusted

b. domain c. single d. sacrificial


Question32 Marks: 2

Content filters are often called ____________________ firewalls. Answer: reverse


Question33 Marks: 2

Kerberos ____ provides tickets to clients who request services. Choose one answer. a. KDS

b. TGS

c. AS d. VPN


Question34 Marks: 2

The ____ is an intermediate area between a trusted network and an untrusted network. Choose one answer. a. perimeter

b. DMZ c. domain d. firewall


Question35 Marks: 2

A benefit of a(n) dual-homed host is its ability to translate between many different protocols at their respective data link layers, including Ethernet, token ring, Fiber Distributed Data Interface, and asynchronous transfer mode. Answer: True

False


Question36 Marks: 2

Address grants prohibit packets with certain addresses or partial addresses from ing through the device. Answer: True

False


Question37 Marks: 2

ICMP uses port ____ to request a response to a query and can be the first indicator of a malicious attack. Choose one answer. a. 4

b. 7 c. 8 d. 48


Question38 Marks: 2

ISA Server can use ____ technology. Choose one answer. a. PNP

b. Point to Point Tunneling Protocol c. RAS d. All of the above


Question39 Marks: 2

Firewalls fall into ____ major processing-mode categories. Choose one answer.

a. two

b. three c. four d. five


Question40 Marks: 2

SOHO assigns non-routing local addresses to the computer systems in the local area network and uses the single ISP-assigned address to communicate with the Internet. Answer: True

False


Question41 Marks: 2

Secure VPNs use security protocols and encrypt traffic transmitted across unsecured public networks like the Internet. Answer: True

False


Question42 Marks: 2

The firewall device is never accessible directly from the ____________________ network. Answer: public


Question43

Marks: 2

Since the bastion host stands as a sole defender on the network perimeter, it is commonly referred to as the ____________________ host. Answer: sacrificial


Question44 Marks: 2

A ____ filtering firewall can react to an emergent event and update or create rules to deal with the event. Choose one answer. a. dynamic

b. static c. stateful d. stateless


Question45 Marks: 2

Telnet protocol packets usually go to T port ____. Choose one answer. a. 7

b. 8 c. 14 d. 23


Question46 Marks: 2

The fifth generation firewalls include the ____________________ proxy, a specialized form that works under Windows NT Executive, which is the kernel of Windows NT. Answer: kernel


Question47 Marks: 2

Access control is achieved by means of a combination of policies, programs, and technologies. Answer: True

False


Question48 Marks: 2

In SESAME, the is first authenticated to an authentication server and receives a token. The token is then presented to a privilege attribute server as proof of identity to gain a(n) ____. Choose one answer. a. VPN

b. ECMA c. ticket d. PAC


Question49 Marks: 2

In ____________________ mode, the organization establishes two perimeter tunnel servers. Answer:

tunel

Incorrect Correct answer: tunnel Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question50 Marks: 2

The application gateway is also known as a(n) ____. Choose one answer. a. application-level firewall

b. client firewall c. proxy firewall d. All of the above


Chapter 5 Review Questions Review of attempt 1 Top of Form

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Question1 Marks: 2

Wednesday, June 15, 2011, 07:33 PM

Saturday, June 18, 2011, 02:34 AM

2 days 7 hours

90 out of a maximum of 100 (90%)

A(n) ____________________ site is a fully configured computer facility, with all services, communications links, and physical plant operations including heating and air conditioning. Answer: hot


Question2 Marks: 2

A standard is a plan or course of action that conveys instructions from an organization’s senior management to those who make decisions, take actions, and perform other duties. Answer: True

False


Question3 Marks: 2

A policy should state that if employees violate a company policy or any law using company technologies, the company will protect them, and the company is liable for the employee’s actions. Answer: True

False


Question4 Marks: 2

The first phase in the development of the contingency planning process is the ____. Choose one answer. a. BIA

b. BRP c. DP9

d. IRP


Question5 Marks: 2

A security ____ is an outline of the overall information security strategy for the organization and a roap for planned changes to the information security environment of the organization. Choose one answer. a. plan

b. framework c. mission d. blanket


Question6 Marks: 2

Implementing multiple types of technology and thereby precluding that the failure of one system will compromise the security of information is referred to as ____________________. Answer: redundancy


Question7 Marks: 2

Security ____ are the areas of trust within which s can freely communicate. Choose one answer. a. perimeters

b. domains

c. rectangles d. layers


Question8 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a device that selectively discriminates against information flowing into or out of the organization. Answer: firew all


Question9 Marks: 2

An attack ____________________ is a detailed description of the activities that occur during an attack. Answer: profile


Question10 Marks: 2

A(n) capability table specifies which subjects and objects s or groups can access. Answer: True

False


Question11 Marks: 2

A service bureau is an agency that provides a service for a fee. Answer:

True

False


Question12 Marks: 2

A buffer against outside attacks is frequently referred to as a(n) ____. Choose one answer. a. proxy server

b. no-man’s land c. DMZ d. firewall


Question13 Marks: 2

The Security Area Working Group acts as an advisory board for the protocols and areas developed and promoted by the Internet Society and the ____. Choose one answer. a. IETF

b. ISO/IEC c. ISOC d. IRTF


Question14 Marks: 2

A firewall can be a single device or a firewall extranet, which consists of multiple firewalls creating a buffer between the outside and inside networks. Answer: True

False


Question15 Marks: 2

Systems-specific security policies are formalized as written documents readily identifiable as policy. Answer: True

False


Question16 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ plan ensures that critical business functions continue if a catastrophic incident or disaster occurs. Answer: disaster recovery

Incorrect Correct answer: business continuity Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question17 Marks: 2

The spheres of ____ are the foundation of the security framework and illustrate how information is under attack from a variety of sources. Choose one answer. a. defense

b. assessment c. security

d. information


Question18 Marks: 2

Policies are living documents that must be managed. Answer: True

False


Question19 Marks: 2

NIST documents can assist in the design of a security framework. Answer: True

False


Question20 Marks: 2

RAID ____ drives can be hot swapped. Choose one answer. a. 2

b. 3 c. 4 d. 5


Question21 Marks: 2

Incident ____________________ is the process of examining a potential incident, or incident candidate, and determining whether or not the candidate constitutes an actual incident. Answer: classification


Question22 Marks: 2

A disaster recovery plan addresses the preparation for and recovery from a disaster, whether natural or man-made. Answer: True

False


Question23 Marks: 2

Laws are more detailed statements of what must be done to comply with policy. Answer: True

False


Question24 Marks: 2

An alert ____ is a document containing information for the people to be notified in the event of an incident. Choose one answer. a. message

b. roster c. plan

d. list


Question25 Marks: 2

A cold site provides many of the same services and options of a hot site. Answer: True

False


Question26 Marks: 2

A(n) ____ plan deals with the identification, classification, response, and recovery from an incident. Choose one answer. a. CM

b. BC c. DR d. IR


Question27 Marks: 2

Incident damage ____ is the rapid determination of the scope of the breach of the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and information assets during or just following an incident. Choose one answer. a. assessment

b. evaluation

c. recovery d. plan


Question28 Marks: 2

Standards may be published, scrutinized, and ratified by a group, as in formal or ____ standards. Choose one answer. a. de formale

b. de public c. de jure d. de facto


Question29 Marks: 2

Strategic planning is the process of moving the organization towards its ____. Choose one answer. a. standard

b. policy c. mission d. vision


Question30 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is any clearly identified attack on the organization’s information assets that would threaten the assets’ confidentiality, integrity, or availability. Answer: incident


Question31 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ backup is the storage of all files that have changed or been added since the last full backup. Answer: differential


Question32 Marks: 2

A(n) contingency plan is prepared by the organization to anticipate, react to, and recover from events that threaten the security of information and information assets in the organization, and, subsequently, to restore the organization to normal modes of business operations. Answer: True

False


Question33 Marks: 2

Host-based IDPSs are usually installed on the machines they protect to monitor the status of various files stored on those machines. Answer: True

False


Question34 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ message is a scripted description of an incident, usually just enough information so that each individual knows what portion of the IRP to implement, and not enough to slow down the notification process. Answer: alert


Question35 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ server performs actions on behalf of another system. Answer: proxy


Question36 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a contract between two or more organizations that specifies how each will assist the other in the event of a disaster. Answer: mutual agreement


Question37 Marks: 2

Effective management includes planning and ____. Choose one answer. a. organizing

b. leading c. controlling

d. All of the above


Question38 Marks: 2

A managerial guidance SysSP document is created by the IT experts in a company to guide management in the implementation and configuration of technology. Answer: True

False


Question39 Marks: 2

Technical controls are the tactical and technical implementations of security in the organization. Answer: True

False


Question40 Marks: 2

Incident ____________________ is the set of activities taken to plan for, detect, and correct the impact of an incident on information assets. Answer: response


Question41 Marks: 2

A ____ site provides only rudimentary services and facilities. Choose one answer.

a. cool

b. warm c. hot d. cold


Question42 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a detailed examination of the events that occurred from first detection to final recovery. Answer: after-action review


Question43 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a plan or course of action that conveys instructions from an organization’s senior management to those who make decisions, take actions, and perform other duties. Answer: policy


Question44 Marks: 2

A security ____________________ defines the boundary between the outer limit of an organization’s security and the beginning of the outside world. Answer: perimeter


Question45 Marks: 2

Redundancy can be implemented at a number of points throughout the security architecture, such as in ____. Choose one answer. a. firewalls

b. proxy servers c. access controls d. All of the above


Question46 Marks: 2

The SETA program is the responsibility of the ____ and is a control measure designed to reduce the incidences of accidental security breaches by employees. Choose one answer. a. CIO

b. CISCO c. CISO d. end s


Question47 Marks: 2

Evidence is the physical object or documented information that proves an action occurred or identifies the intent of a perpetrator. Answer: True

False


Question48 Marks: 2

Computer ____________________ is the process of collecting, analyzing, and preserving computerrelated evidence. Answer: forensics


Question49 Marks: 2

RAID Level 1 is commonly called disk ____________________. Answer: mirroring


Question50 Marks: 2

SP 800-14, Generally Accepted Principles and Practices for Securing Information Technology Systems, provides best practices and security principles that can direct the security team in the development of a security ____. Choose one answer. a. plan

b. standard c. policy d. blueprint



Marks: 2 A(n) ____________________ vulnerability scanner is one that initiates traffic on the network in order to determine security holes. Answer: active

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 2 Marks: 2 Activities that scan network locales for active systems and then identify the network services offered by the host systems is known as ____. Choose one answer. a. filtering b. doorknob rattling c. footprinting d. fingerprinting Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 3 Marks: 2 A(n) ____ is a proposed systems . Choose one answer. a. authenticator b. challenger c. supplicant d. activator Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/2. Question 4 Marks: 2 A(n) listener vulnerability scanner is one that listens in on the network and determines vulnerable versions of both server and client software. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 5

Marks: 2 ____ applications use a combination of techniques to detect an intrusion and then trace it back to its source. Choose one answer. a. Trace and treat b. Trap and trace c. Treat and trap d. Trace and clip Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 6 Marks: 2 ____ are decoy systems designed to lure potential attackers away from critical systems. Choose one answer. a. Honeypots b. Honeycells c. Padded cells d. Padded nets Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 7 Marks: 2 A(n) ____________________ system contains pseudo-services that emulate well-known services, but is configured in ways that make it look vulnerable to attacks. Answer: honey pot

Incorrect Correct answer: honeypot Marks for this submission: 0/2. Question 8 Marks: 2 Intrusion ____ activities finalize the restoration of operations to a normal state and seek to identify the source and method of the intrusion in order to ensure that the same type of attack cannot occur again. Choose one answer. a. prevention b. reaction c. detection d. correction Incorrect

Marks for this submission: 0/2. Question 9 Marks: 2 Enticement is the action of luring an individual into committing a crime to get a conviction. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 10 Marks: 2 A ive response is a definitive action automatically initiated when certain types of alerts are triggered. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 11 Marks: 2 Which of the following ports is commonly used for the HTTP protocol? Choose one answer. a. 20 b. 25 c. 53 d. 80 Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 12 Marks: 2 A sniffer cannot be used to eavesdrop on network traffic. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 13 Marks: 2 A(n) ____________________ occurs when an attacker attempts to gain entry or disrupt the normal operations of an information system, almost always with the intent to do harm. Answer: intrusion

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 14 Marks: 2 A HIDPS can monitor systems logs for predefined events. Answer:

True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 15 Marks: 2 The ongoing activity from alarm events that are accurate and noteworthy but not necessarily significant as potentially successful attacks is called ____________________. Answer: noise

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 16 Marks: 2 A(n) ____________________ IDPS can adapt its reactions in response to guidance over time and circumstances of the current local environment. Answer: smart

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 17 Marks: 2 In T/IP networking, port ____ is not used. Choose one answer. a. 0 b. 1 c. 13 d. 1023 Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 18 Marks: 2 A signature-based IDPS is sometimes called a(n) ____________________-based IDPS. Answer: know ledge

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 19 Marks: 2 IDPS researchers have used padded cell and honeypot systems since the late ____. Choose one answer. a. 1960s b. 1970s

c. 1980s d. 1990s Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 20 Marks: 2 Alarm ____________________ and compaction is a consolidation of almost identical alarms that happen at close to the same time into a single higher-level alarm. Answer: clustering

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 21 Marks: 2 Using ____, the system reviews the log files generated by servers, network devices, and even other IDPSs. Choose one answer. a. LFM b. stat IDPS c. AppIDPS d. HIDPS Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 22 Marks: 2 A starting scanner is one that initiates traffic on the network in order to determine security holes. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 23 Marks: 2 A(n) ____________________ is a honey pot that has been protected so that it cannot be easily compromised. Answer: padded cell

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 24 Marks: 2 The initial estimation of the defensive state of an organization’s networks and systems is called doorknob ____________________. Answer: rattling

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 25 Marks: 2 In ____________________ protocol verification, the higher-order protocols are examined for unexpected packet behavior, or improper use. Answer: application

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 26 Marks: 2 Three methods dominate the IDPSs detection methods: ____________________-based approach, statistical anomaly-based approach or the stateful packet inspection approach. Answer: signature

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 27 Marks: 2 A strategy based on the concept of defense in depth is likely to include intrusion detection systems, active vulnerability scanners, ive vulnerability scanners, automated log analyzers, and protocol analyzers. Answer: True False Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/2. Question 28 Marks: 2 The attack ____________________ is a series of steps or processes used by an attacker, in a logical sequence, to launch an attack against a target system or network. Answer: protocol

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 29 Marks: 2 A HIDPS is optimized to detect multihost scanning, and it is able to detect the scanning of non-host network devices, such as routers or switches. Answer: True False Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/2. Question 30 Marks: 2 Fingerprinting is the organized research of the Internet addresses owned or controlled by a target organization. Answer:

True False Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/2. Question 31 Marks: 2 A packet ____________________ is a network tool that collects copies of packets from the network and analyzes them. Answer: sniffer

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 32 Marks: 2 A(n) ____________________-based IDPS resides on a particular computer or server and monitors activity only on that system. Answer: host

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 33 Marks: 2 ____ are usually ive devices and can be deployed into existing networks with little or no disruption to normal network operations. Choose one answer. a. NIDPSs b. HIDPSs c. AppIDPSs d. SIDPSs Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 34 Marks: 2 A(n) ____ works like a burglar alarm in that it detects a violation (some system activities analogous to an opened or broken window) and activates an alarm. Choose one answer. a. IDS b. IIS c. ITS d. SIS Correct

Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 35 Marks: 2 Among all possible biometrics, ____ is(are) considered truly unique. Choose one answer. a. retina of the eye b. fingerprints c. iris of the eye d. All of the above Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 36 Marks: 2 A false positive is the failure of an IDPS system to react to an actual attack event. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 37 Marks: 2 Most NBA sensors can be deployed in ____ mode only, using the same connection methods as network-based IDPSs. Choose one answer. a. ive b. active c. reactive d. dynamic Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 38 Marks: 2 A(n) ____ is a network tool that collects copies of packets from the network and analyzes them. Choose one answer. a. packet scanner b. packet sniffer c. honey pot d. honey packet Correct

Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 39 Marks: 2 HIDPSs are also known as system ____________________ verifiers. Answer: integrity

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 40 Marks: 2 A wireless security toolkit should include the ability to sniff wireless traffic, scan wireless hosts, and assess the level of privacy or confidentiality afforded on the wireless network. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 41 Marks: 2 The ____________________ error rate is the level at which the number of false rejections equals the false acceptances, also known as the equal error rate. Answer: crossover

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 42 Marks: 2 The ____________________ port is also known as a switched port analysis port or mirror port. Answer: monitoring

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 43 Marks: 2 A(n) NIDPS functions on the host system, where encrypted traffic will have been decrypted and is available for processing. Answer: True False Incorrect Marks for this submission: 0/2. Question 44 Marks: 2 Minutiae are unique points of reference that are digitized and stored in an encrypted format when the ’s system access credentials are created. Answer: True Correct

False

Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 45 Marks: 2 A fully distributed IDPS control strategy is the opposite of the centralized strategy. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 46 Marks: 2 A(n) ____ IDPS is focused on protecting network information assets. Choose one answer. a. network-based b. host-based c. application-based d. server-based Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 47 Marks: 2 A(n) log file monitor is similar to a NIDPS. Answer: True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 48 Marks: 2 To determine whether an attack has occurred or is underway, NIDPSs compare measured activity to known ____ in their knowledge base. Choose one answer. a. fingernails b. fingerprints c. signatures d. footprints Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 49 Marks: 2 A padded cell is a hardened honeynet. Answer:

True False Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Question 50 Marks: 2 ____ benchmark and monitor the status of key system files and detect when an intruder creates, modifies, or deletes monitored files. Choose one answer. a. NIDPSs b. HIDPSs c. AppIDPSs

Question1 Marks: 2

____ are encrypted messages that can be mathematically proven to be authentic. Choose one answer. a. Digital signatures

b. MAC c. Message certificates d. Message digests


Question2 Marks: 2

A(n) distinguished name uniquely identifies a certificate entity, to a ’s public key. Answer: True

False


Question3

Marks: 2

Privacy Enhanced Mail was proposed by the Internet Engineering Task Force and is a standard that uses 3DES symmetric key encryption and RSA for key exchanges and digital signatures. Answer: True

False


Question4 Marks: 2

As DES became known as being too weak for highly classified communications, Double DES was created to provide a level of security far beyond that of DES. Answer: True

False


Question5 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ substitution uses one alphabet. Answer: monoalphabetic


Question6 Marks: 2

An attacker may obtain duplicate texts, one in ciphertext and one in plaintext, and thus reverse-engineer the encryption algorithm in a known-plaintext attack scheme. Answer: True

False


Question7 Marks: 2

In IPSEC ____________________ mode, only the IP data is encrypted, not the IP headers. Answer: transport


Question8 Marks: 2

Digital ____________________ are public-key container files that allow computer programs to validate the key and identify to whom it belongs. Answer: certificates


Question9 Marks: 2

Digital ____________________ are encrypted messages that can be mathematically proven to be authentic. Answer: signatures


Question10 Marks: 2

A message ____________________ is a fingerprint of the author’s message that is compared with the recipient’s locally calculated hash of the same message. Answer: digest


Question11 Marks: 2

Digital signatures should be created using processes and products that are based on the ____.

Choose one answer. a. DSS

b. NIST c. SSL d. HTTPS


Question12 Marks: 2

DES uses a(n) _____-bit block size. Choose one answer. a. 32

b. 64 c. 128 d. 256


Question13 Marks: 2

Symmetric encryption uses two different but related keys, and either key can be used to encrypt or decrypt the message. Answer: True

False


Question14 Marks: 2

____ attacks are a collection of brute-force methods that attempt to deduce statistical relationships between the structure of the unknown key and the ciphertext that is the output of the cryptosystem. Choose one answer. a. Timing

b. Dictionary c. Correlation d. Man-in-the-middle


Question15 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ authority operates under the trusted collaboration of the certificate authority and can be delegated day-to-day certification functions, such as ing registration information about new registrants, generating end- keys, revoking certificates, and validating that s possess a valid certificate. Answer: registration


Question16 Marks: 2

The science of encryption is known as ____________________. Answer: cryptology


Question17 Marks: 2

A ____ is a key-dependent, one-way hash function that allows only specific recipients (symmetric key holders) to access the message digest. Choose one answer.

a. signature

b. MAC c. fingerprint d. digest


Question18 Marks: 2

Common implementations of RA include systems that issue digital certificates to s and servers; directory enrollment; key issuing systems; tools for managing the key issuance; and verification and return of certificates. Answer: True

False


Question19 Marks: 2

The CA periodically distributes a(n) ____ to all s that identifies all revoked certificates. Choose one answer. a. CRL

b. RA c. MAC d. AES


Question20 Marks: 2

Attackers may conduct an encrypted-plaintext attack by sending potential victims a specific text that they are sure the victims will forward on to others. Answer: True

False


Question21 Marks: 2

The ____ algorithm was the first public key encryption algorithm developed (in 1977) and published for commercial use. Choose one answer. a. DES

b. RSA c. MAC d. AES


Question22 Marks: 2

A mathematical ____________________ is a “secret mechanism that enables you to easily accomplish the reverse function in a one-way function.” Answer: trapdoor


Question23 Marks: 2

In a ____ attack, the attacker eavesdrops during the victim’s session and uses statistical analysis of patterns and inter-keystroke timings to discern sensitive session information. Choose one answer.

a. replay

b. timing c. correlation d. dictionary


Question24 Marks: 2

In a(n) ____________________ attack, the attacker eavesdrops on the victim’s session and uses statistical analysis of patterns and inter-keystroke timings to discern sensitive session information. Answer: timing


Question25 Marks: 2

A(n) key is the programmatic steps used to convert an unencrypted message into an encrypted sequence of bits that represent the message. Answer: True

False


Question26 Marks: 2

Hash algorithms are public functions that create a hash value by converting variable-length messages into a single fixed-length value. Answer: True

False


Question27 Marks: 2

A(n) response attack is an attempt to resubmit a recording of the deciphered authentication to gain entry into a secure source. Answer: True

False


Question28 Marks: 2

The ____ protocol provides system-to-system authentication and data integrity verification, but does not provide secrecy for the content of a network communication. Choose one answer. a. ESP

b. AH c. HA d. SEP


Question29 Marks: 2

A method of encryption that requires the same secret key to encipher and decipher the message is known as ____ encryption. Choose one answer. a. asymmetric

b. symmetric c. public

d. private


Question30 Marks: 2

AES implements a block cipher called the Rijndael Block Cipher. Answer: True

False


Question31 Marks: 2

Secure HTTP provides the Internet communication services between client and host without consideration for encryption of the data that is transmitted between client and server. Answer: True

False


Question32 Marks: 2

Bit stream methods commonly use algorithm functions like the exclusive OR operation (_____). Choose one answer. a. XOR

b. EOR c. NOR d. OR


Question33

Marks: 2

A(n) man-in-the-middle attack attempts to intercept a public key or even to insert a known key structure in place of the requested public key. Answer: True

False


Question34 Marks: 2

____ functions are mathematical algorithms that generate a message summary or digest to confirm the identity of a specific message and to confirm that there have not been any changes to the content. Choose one answer. a. Hash

b. Map c. Key d. Encryption


Question35 Marks: 2

An X.509 v3 certificate binds a _____, which uniquely identifies a certificate entity, to a ’s public key. Choose one answer. a. message digest

b. fingerprint c. distinguished name d. digital signature

Correct


Question36 Marks: 2

Netscape developed the ____________________ Layer protocol to use public key encryption to secure a channel over the Internet, thus enabling secure communications. Answer: Secure Sockets

Incorrect Correct answer: Secure Socket Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question37 Marks: 2

The ____ is responsible for the fragmentation, compression, encryption, and attachment of an SSL header to the cleartext prior to transmission. Choose one answer. a. Standard HTTP

b. SFTP c. S-HTTP d. SSL Record Protocol


Question38 Marks: 2

DES uses a 64-bit key. Answer: True

False


Question39 Marks: 2

____ is a federal information processing standard that specifies a cryptographic algorithm used within the U.S. government to protect information in federal agencies that are not a part of the national defense infrastructure. Choose one answer. a. DES

b. 2DES c. AES d. 3DES


Question40 Marks: 2

A digital ____________________ is an electronic document or container file that contains a key value and identifying information about the entity that controls the key. Answer: certificate


Question41 Marks: 2

SHA-1 produces a(n) _____-bit message digest, which can then be used as an input to a digital signature algorithm. Choose one answer. a. 48

b. 56 c. 160 d. 256

Correct


Question42 Marks: 2

Encryption is the process of converting the ciphertext message back into plaintext so that it can be readily understood. Answer: True

False


Question43 Marks: 2

The more common name for asymmetric encryption is ____________________-key encryption. Answer: public


Question44 Marks: 2

More advanced substitution ciphers use two or more alphabets, and are referred to as ____ substitutions. Choose one answer. a. multialphabetic

b. monoalphabetic c. polyalphabetic d. polynomic


Question45 Marks: 2

One of the most widely known cryptographic algorithms is the Data ____________________ Standard, which was developed by IBM and is based on the company’s Lucifer algorithm.

Answer: Encryption


Question46 Marks: 2

Hashing functions do not require the use of keys, but it is possible to attach a message ____________________ code. Answer: authentication


Question47 Marks: 2

Also known as the one-time pad, the ____________________ cipher, which was developed at AT&T, uses a set of characters only one time for each encryption process. Answer: Vernam


Question48 Marks: 2

A(n) registration authority issues, manages, authenticates, signs, and revokes s’ digital certificates, which typically contain the name, public key, and other identifying information. Answer: True

False


Question49 Marks: 2

The encapsulating security ____________________ protocol provides secrecy for the contents of network communications as well as system-to-system authentication and data integrity verification. Answer:

payload


Question50 Marks: 2

The process of hiding messages within the digital encoding of a picture or graphic is called ____________________. Answer: steganography


Chapter 9 Review Questions Question1 Marks: 2

A(n) _________________________ is a small enclosure that has separate entry and exit points. Answer: mantrap


Question2 Marks: 2

A common form of mechanical locks are electric strike locks, which (usually) require people to announce themselves before being “buzzed” through a locked door. Answer: True

False


Question3 Marks: 2

A(n) _________________________ system has pressurized water in all pipes and has some form of valve in each protected area.

Answer: w et-pipe


Question4 Marks: 2

A(n) _________________________ is typically worn concealed. Answer: identification card


Question5 Marks: 2

A variation of the dry-pipe system is the pre-action system, which has a two-phase response to a fire. Answer: True

False


Question6 Marks: 2

Interference with the normal pattern of the electrical current is also referred to as _________________________. Answer: noise


Question7 Marks: 2

The U.S. government has developed a program, named _________________________ to reduce the risk of EMR monitoring. Answer: TEMPEST


Question8 Marks: 2

Fire detection systems fall into two general categories: manual and electrical. Answer: True

False


Question9 Marks: 2

Some sprinkler systems, called _________________________ systems, keep open all of the individual sprinkler heads, and as soon as the system is activated, water is immediately applied to all areas. Answer: deluge


Question10 Marks: 2

Grounding ensures that the returning flow of current is properly discharged to the ground. Answer: True

False


Question11 Marks: 2

____ occurs when an authorized person presents a key to open a door, and other people, who may or may not be authorized, also enter. Choose one answer. a. Crowdsurfing

b. Tailgating c. Freeloading d. Hitchhiking


Question12 Marks: 2

Smoke detection systems are perhaps the most common means of detecting a potentially dangerous fire, and they are required by building codes in most residential dwellings and commercial buildings. Answer: True

False


Question13 Marks: 2

Guards can evaluate each situation as it arises and make reasoned responses. Answer: True

False


Question14 Marks: 2

A ____ system is designed to work in areas where electrical equipment is used. Instead of containing water, the system contains pressurized air. Choose one answer. a. wet-pipe

b. dry-pipe c. deluge

d. sprinkler


Question15 Marks: 2

A(n) _________________________ or offline UPS is an offline battery backup that detects the interruption of power to the power equipment. Answer: standby


Question16 Marks: 2

UPS devices typically run up to ____ VA. Choose one answer. a. 100

b. 250 c. 500 d. 1,000


Question17 Marks: 2

A wet-pipe system is usually considered appropriate in computer rooms. Answer: True

False


Question18

Marks: 2

In the ____ UPS, the internal components of the standby models are replaced with a pair of inverters and converters. Choose one answer. a. line-interactive

b. ferroresonant c. true online d. offline


Question19 Marks: 2

A device that assures the delivery of electric power without interruption is a(n) ____. Choose one answer. a. GFCI

b. HVAC c. GPS d. UPS


Question20 Marks: 2

The temperature of ignition is called the _________________________ of a material. Answer: flame point


Question21 Marks: 2

Cold detectors measure rates of change in the ambient temperature in the room. Answer: True

False


Question22 Marks: 2

Class _________________________fires are extinguished by agents that interrupt the ability of the fuel to be ignited. Answer: A


Question23 Marks: 2

The most sophisticated locks are ____ locks. Choose one answer. a. manual

b. programmable c. electronic d. biometric


Question24 Marks: 2

All liquid systems are designed to apply liquid, usually water, to all areas in which a fire has been detected. Answer:

True

False


Question25 Marks: 2

A specialized type of keycard reader is the _________________________ reader, which allows individuals simply to place their cards within the reader’s range. Answer: proximity


Question26 Marks: 2

Fire ____ systems are devices installed and maintained to detect and respond to a fire, potential fire, or combustion danger situation. Choose one answer. a. detection

b. suppression c. protection d. prevention


Question27 Marks: 2

Videoconferencing is off site computing that uses Internet connections, dialup connections, connections over leased point-to-point links between offices, and other connection mechanisms. Answer: True

False


Question28 Marks: 2

One of the leading causes of damage to sensitive circuitry is ____. Choose one answer. a. U

b. EPA c. ESD d. HVAC


Question29 Marks: 2

Class ____ fires are extinguished with non-conducting agents only. Choose one answer. a. A

b. B c. C d. D


Question30 Marks: 2

Gaseous emission systems can be used in the suppression of fires. Answer: True

False


Question31 Marks: 2

Computing and other electrical equipment in areas where water can accumulate must be uniquely grounded, using ____ equipment. Choose one answer. a. UPS

b. HVAC c. GFCI d. ESD


Question32 Marks: 2

Electronic monitoring includes ____ systems. Choose one answer. a. blocked video

b. local video c. open-circuit television d. closed-circuit television


Question33 Marks: 2

The thermal detection systems contain a sophisticated heat _________________________. Answer: sensor

Correct


Question34 Marks: 2

The _________________________ detector is a sensor that detects the infrared or ultraviolet light produced by an open flame. Answer: flame


Question35 Marks: 2

____ involves a wide variety of computing sites that are distant from the base organizational facility and includes all forms of telecommuting. Choose one answer. a. Remote site computing

b. Telecommuting c. Remote working d. Hot site computing


Question36 Marks: 2

Class ____ fires are extinguished by agents that remove oxygen from the fire. Choose one answer. a. A

b. B c. C

d. D


Question37 Marks: 2

The _________________________ lock may rely on a key that is a carefully shaped piece of metal, which is rotated to turn tumblers that release secured loops of steel, aluminum, or brass. Answer: mechanical


Question38 Marks: 2

____ locks can be changed after they are put in service, allowing for combination or key changes without a locksmith and even allowing the owner to change to another access method (key or combination) to upgrade security. Choose one answer. a. Programmable

b. Manual c. Biometric d. Electronic


Question39 Marks: 2

Mechanical locks can accept a variety of inputs as keys, including magnetic strips on ID cards, radio signals from name badges, personal identification numbers (PINs) typed into a keypad, or some combination of these to activate an electrically powered servo to unlock the mechanism. Answer: True

False


Question40 Marks: 2

A name badge is typically worn concealed. Answer: True

False


Question41 Marks: 2

In the ____ approach, the sensor detects an unusually rapid increase in the area temperature within a relatively short period of time. Choose one answer. a. fixed temperature

b. permanent temperature c. fixed rate d. rate-of-rise


Question42 Marks: 2

A secure _________________________ is a physical location that has in place controls to minimize the risk of attacks from physical threats. Answer: secure

Incorrect Correct answer: facility Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question43

Marks: 2

Building codes require that each floor have a number of _________________________, or walls that limit the spread of damage should a fire break out in an office. Answer: firew alls


Question44 Marks: 2

Carbon dioxide systems rob fire of its oxygen. Answer: True

False


Question45 Marks: 2

_________________________ detect movement within a confined space and are either active or ive. Answer: Motion detectors


Question46 Marks: 2

Halon is one of a few chemicals designated as a(n) _________________________ agent, which means that it does not leave any residue after use, nor does it interfere with the operation of electrical or electronic equipment. Answer: clean


Question47 Marks: 2

Class C fires are those fueled by combustible metals, such as magnesium, lithium, and sodium. Answer: True

False


Question48 Marks: 2

Interior walls reach only part way to the next floor, which leaves a space above the ceiling of the offices but below the top of the storey. This space is called a(n) ____. Choose one answer. a. kneespace

b. attic c. plenum d. padding


Question49 Marks: 2

Manual fire detection, include human responses, such as calling the fire department, as well as manually activated alarms, such as sprinklers and gaseous systems. Answer: True

False


Question50 Marks: 2

Most guards have clear ____ that help them to act decisively in unfamiliar situations. Choose one answer. a. MACs

b. SOPs c. POSs d. OPSs

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Top of Form


Chapter 10 Review Questions Bottom of Form

Question1 Marks: 2

The Lewin change model consists of ____. Choose one answer. a. unfreezing

b. moving c. refreezing d. All of the above


Question2 Marks: 2

If the task is to write firewall specifications for the preparation of a(n) ____, the planner would note that the deliverable is a specification document suitable for distribution to vendors. Choose one answer.

a. WBS

b. CBA c. SDLC d. RFP


Question3 Marks: 2

Regardless of where in the budget information security items are located, monetary ____________________ determine what can (and cannot) be accomplished. Answer: constraints


Question4 Marks: 2

Once a project is underway, it is managed to completion using a process known as a negative ____________________ loop. Answer:


Question5 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ implementation is the most common conversion strategy and involves a measured rollout of the planned system with a part of the whole being brought out and disseminated across an organization before the next piece is implemented. Answer: phased

Correct


Question6 Marks: 2

Corrective action decisions are usually expressed in of trade-offs. Answer: True

False


Question7 Marks: 2

A proven method for prioritizing a program of complex change is the bull’s-eye method. Answer: True

False


Question8 Marks: 2

One of the oldest models of change is the ____________________ change model. Answer: Lew in


Question9 Marks: 2

Each organization has to determine its own project management methodology for IT and information security projects. Answer: True

False


Question10 Marks: 2

Every organization needs to develop an information security department or program of its own. Answer: True

False


Question11 Marks: 2

ERP stands for enterprise ____________________ planning. Answer: resource


Question12 Marks: 2

In general, the design phase is accomplished by changing the configuration and operation of the organization’s information systems to make them more secure. Answer: True

False


Question13 Marks: 2

Management should coordinate the organization’s information security vision and objectives with the communities of ____________________ involved in the execution of the plan. Answer: interest


Question14 Marks: 2

In the early stages of planning, the project planner should attempt to specify completion dates only for major employees within the project.

Answer: True

False


Question15 Marks: 2

The ____ layer of the bulls-eye model receives attention last. Choose one answer. a. Policies

b. Networks c. Systems d. Applications


Question16 Marks: 2

JAD stands for ____________________ application development. Answer: t


Question17 Marks: 2

Most information security projects require a trained project CEO. Answer: True

False


Question18

Marks: 2

Planners need to estimate the effort required to complete each task, subtask, or action step. Answer: True

False


Question19 Marks: 2

All organizations should designate a champion from the general management community of interest to supervise the implementation of an information security project plan. Answer: True

False


Question20 Marks: 2

A task or subtask becomes an action step when it can be completed by one individual or skill set and when it includes a single deliverable. Answer: True

False


Question21 Marks: 2

In the ____ process, measured results are compared to expected results. Choose one answer. a. negative loop

b. wrap-up c. direct changeover

d. turnover


Question22 Marks: 2

The level of resistance to ____________________ impacts the ease with which an organization is able to implement the procedural and managerial changes. Answer: change


Question23 Marks: 2

Medium- and large-sized organizations deal with the impact of technical change on the operation of the organization through a(n) ____________________ control process. Answer: change


Question24 Marks: 2

In a ____ implementation, the entire security system is put in place in a single office, department, or division, and issues that arise are dealt with before expanding to the rest of the organization. Choose one answer. a. loop

b. direct c. parallel d. pilot


Question25 Marks: 2

The goal of the ____ is to resolve any pending issues, critique the overall effort of the project, and draw conclusions about how to improve the process for the future. Choose one answer. a. direct changeover

b. wrap-up c. phased implementation d. pilot implementation


Question26 Marks: 2

A direct changeover is also known as going “fast turnkey.” Answer: True

False


Question27 Marks: 2

By managing the ____, the organization can reduce unintended consequences by having a process to resolve potential conflict and disruption that uncoordinated change can introduce. Choose one answer. a. changeover

b. wrap-up c. process of change d. governance


Question28 Marks: 2

A cybernetic loop ensures that progress is measured periodically. Answer: True

False


Question29 Marks: 2

The ____ layer of the bulls-eye model includes computers used as servers, desktop computers, and systems used for process control and manufacturing systems. Choose one answer. a. Policies

b. Networks c. Systems d. Applications


Question30 Marks: 2

The ____ involves collecting information about an organization’s objectives, its technical architecture, and its information security environment. Choose one answer. a. SISC

b. SecSDLC c. DLC

d. SIDLC


Question31 Marks: 2

Project ____________________ describes the amount of time and effort-hours needed to deliver the planned features and quality level of the project deliverables. Answer: scope


Question32 Marks: 2

A(n) _____________________ is a completed document or program module that can either serve as the beginning point for a later task or become an element in the finished project. Answer: deliverable


Question33 Marks: 2

Technology _____________________ is a complex process that organizations use to manage the affects and costs of technology implementation, innovation, and obsolescence. Answer: governance


Question34 Marks: 2

The date for sending the final RFP to vendors is considered a(n) ____, because it signals that all RFP preparation work is complete. Choose one answer.

a. intermediate step

b. resource c. milestone d. deliverable


Question35 Marks: 2

Each for-profit organization determines its capital budget and the rules for managing capital spending and expenses the same way. Answer: True

False


Question36 Marks: 2

Tasks or action steps that come after the task at hand are called ____. Choose one answer. a. predecessors

b. successors c. children d. parents


Question37 Marks: 2

Some cases of ____ are simple, such as requiring employees to use a new beginning on an announced date.

Choose one answer. a. phased implementation

b. direct changeover c. pilot implementation d. wrap-up


Question38 Marks: 2

During the implementation phase, the organization translates its blueprint for information security into a concrete project ____________________. Answer: plan


Question39 Marks: 2

Technology ____ guides how frequently technical systems are updated, and how technical updates are approved and funded. Choose one answer. a. wrap-up

b. governance c. turnover d. changeover


Question40 Marks: 2

A(n) ____, typically prepared in the analysis phase of the SecSDLC, must be reviewed and verified prior to the development of the project plan. Choose one answer. a. RFP

b. WBS c. SDLC d. CBA


Question41 Marks: 2

Project managers can reduce resistance to change by involving employees in the project plan. In systems development, this is referred to as ____. Choose one answer. a. DMZ

b. SDLC c. WBS d. JAD


Question42 Marks: 2

A ____ is usually the best approach to security project implementation. Choose one answer. a. direct changeover

b. phased implementation

c. pilot implementation d. parallel operation


Question43 Marks: 2

DMZ is the primary way to secure an organization’s networks. Answer: True

False


Question44 Marks: 2

Planning for the implementation phase of a security project requires the creation of a detailed project plan. Answer: True

False


Question45 Marks: 2

A direct ____________________ involves stopping the old method and beginning the new. Answer: direct

Incorrect Correct answer: changeover Marks for this submission: 0/2.

Question46 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ is a specific point in the project plan when a task that has a noticeable impact on the progress of the project plan is complete. Answer:

milestone


Question47 Marks: 2

The project planner should describe the skill set or person, often called a(n) ____________________, needed to accomplish a task. Answer: resource


Question48 Marks: 2

Public organizations often have “____” to spend all their remaining funds before the end of the fiscal year. Choose one answer. a. end-of-fiscal-year spending-sprees

b. end-of-year spend-a-thons c. end-of-fiscal spending-sprees d. end-of-fiscal-year spend-a-thons


Question49 Marks: 2

An ideal organization fosters resilience to change. Answer: True

False


Question50

Marks: 2

Tasks or action steps that come after the task at hand are called ____________________. Answer: successors


Chapter 11 Review Quiz Review of attempt 1 Top of Form

Question1 Marks: 2

____ are often involved in national security and cyber-security tasks and move from those environments into the more business-oriented world of information security. Choose one answer. a. Marketing managers

b. Military personnel c. Business analysts d. Lawyers


Question2 Marks: 2

CISOs are ____________________ managers first. Answer: business


Question3 Marks: 2

A(n) “____________________ agency” is an agency that provides specifically qualified individuals at the paid request of another company. Answer: temp


Question4 Marks: 2

The ____ examination is designed to provide CISSPs with a mechanism to demonstrate competence in the more in-depth and concentrated requirements of information security management. Choose one answer. a. ISSMP

b. ISSAP c. CISSPM d. CISSMP


Question5 Marks: 2

In recent years, the ____ certification program has added a set of concentration exams. Choose one answer. a. ISSEP

b. ISSMP c. ISSAP d. CISSP


Question6 Marks: 2

It is important to gather employee ____________________ early about the information security program and respond to it quickly. Answer:


Question7 Marks: 2

Each CISSP concentration exam consists of 25 to 50 questions. Answer: True

False


Question8 Marks: 2

Employees should be provided access to the minimal amount of information for the minimal amount of time necessary for them to perform their duties. This is referred to as the principle of ____________________. Answer: least privilege


Question9 Marks: 2

SANS developed a series of technical security certifications in 1999 that are known as the Global Information ____________________ Certification or GIAC family of certifications. Answer: Assurance


Question10 Marks: 2

The ____________________ acts as the spokesperson for the information security team. Answer: CISO


Question11 Marks: 2

____ are the technically qualified individuals tasked to configure firewalls, deploy IDSs, implement security software, diagnose and troubleshoot problems, and coordinate with systems and network s to ensure that an organization’s security technology is properly implemented. Choose one answer. a. CSOs

b. CISOs c. Security managers d. Security technicians


Question12 Marks: 2

____ are hired by the organization to serve in a temporary position or to supplement the existing workforce. Choose one answer. a. Temporary employees

b. Consultants c. Contractors

d. Self-employees


Question13 Marks: 2

Sometimes onsite contracted employees are self-employed or are employees of an organization hired for a specific, one-time purpose. These people are typically referred to as ____________________. Answer: consultants


Question14 Marks: 2

In many organizations, information security teams lacks established roles and responsibilities. Answer: True

False


Question15 Marks: 2

The S certification provides three tracks: the SCNS (Security Certified Network Specialist); the SCNP (Security Certified Network Professional); and the SCNA (Security Certified Network ____________________). Answer: Architect


Question16 Marks: 2

The ____________________ of (ISC)2 program is geared toward those who want to take the CISSP or SS exams before obtaining the requisite experience for certification. Answer:

Associate


Question17 Marks: 2

s provide the policies, guidelines and standards in the Schwartz, Erwin,Weafer, and Briney classification. Answer: True

False


Question18 Marks: 2

A study of information security positions, done by Schwartz, Erwin,Weafer, and Briney, found that positions can be classified into one of ____ areas. Choose one answer. a. two



Question19 Marks: 2

In the business world, background checks determine the individual’s level of security classification, a requirement for many positions. Answer: True

False


Question20 Marks: 2

The ____ program focuses more on building trusted networks, including biometrics and PKI. Choose one answer. a. NFC

b. SCNP c. PKI d. SCNA


Question21 Marks: 2

The ____ position is typically considered the top information security officer in the organization. Choose one answer. a. CISO

b. CFO c. CTO d. CEO


Question22 Marks: 2

ISSAP stands for Information Systems Security Architecture Professional. Answer: True

False


Question23 Marks: 2

The information security function can be placed within the ____. Choose one answer. a. insurance and risk management function

b. istrative services function c. legal department d. All of the above


Question24 Marks: 2

ISSMP stands for Information Systems Security Monitoring Professional. Answer: True

False


Question25 Marks: 2

Security ____________________ are able for the day-to-day operation of the information security program. Answer: managers


Question26 Marks: 2

Related to the concept of separation of duties is that of ____________________, the requirement that two individuals review and approve each other’s work before the task is categorized as finished. Answer:

tw o-person control


Question27 Marks: 2

The breadth and depth covered in each of the domains makes the ____ one of the most difficult-to-attain certifications on the market. Choose one answer. a. NSA

b. CISO c. CISSP d. ISEP


Question28 Marks: 2

ISSEP was developed under a t agreement between the FBI and the United States National Security Agency, Information Assurance Directorate. Answer: True

False


Question29 Marks: 2

All of the existing certifications are fully understood by hiring organizations. Answer: True

False


Question30 Marks: 2

System istration, Networking, and Security Organization is better known as ____. Choose one answer. a. SANO

b. SAN c. SANS d. SANSO


Question31 Marks: 2

Once an information security function’s organizational position has been determined, the challenge is to design a(n) ____________________ structure for the information security function that balances the competing needs of each of the communities of interest. Answer: reporting


Question32 Marks: 2

ISSEP stands for Information Systems Security Expert Professional. Answer: True

False


Question33 Marks: 2

The Information Systems ____________________ and Control Association offers the CISA certification for auditing, networking, and security professionals.

Answer: Audit


Question34 Marks: 2

Separation of ____________________ is used to reduce the chance of an individual violating information security and breaching the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of information. Answer: duties


Question35 Marks: 2

A mandatory furlough provides the organization with the ability to audit the work of an individual. Answer: True

False


Question36 Marks: 2

____ are the real techies who create and install security solutions. Choose one answer. a. Builders

b. s c. Senior managers d. Definers


Question37 Marks: 2

The organization should conduct a behavioral feasibility study before the ____________________ phase. Answer: implementation


Question38 Marks: 2

GIAC stands for Global Information Architecture Certification. Answer: True

False


Question39 Marks: 2

Many information security professionals enter the field from traditional ____ assignments. Choose one answer. a. HR

b. BA c. IT d. All of the above


Question40 Marks: 2

Builders operate and istrate the security tools and the security monitoring function and continuously improve the processes, performing all the day-to-day work. Answer:

True

False


Question41 Marks: 2

Friendly departures include termination for cause, permanent downsizing, temporary lay-off, or some instances of quitting. Answer: True

False


Question42 Marks: 2

ISACA stands for Information Systems Automation and Control Association. Answer: True

False


Question43 Marks: 2

Job ____________________ can greatly increase the chance that an employee’s misuse of the system or abuse of the information will be detected by another. Answer: rotation


Question44 Marks: 2

The applicant for the CISM must provide evidence of ____ years of professional work experience in the field of information security, with a waiver or substitution of up to two years for education or previous certification. Choose one answer.

a. five

b. eight c. ten d. twelve


Question45 Marks: 2

Many organizations use a(n) ____ interview to remind the employee of contractual obligations, such as nondisclosure agreements, and to obtain on the employee’s tenure in the organization. Choose one answer. a. hostile

b. departure c. exit d. termination


Question46 Marks: 2

The model used often by large organizations places the information security department within the ____ department. Choose one answer. a. management

b. information technology c. financial

d. production


Question47 Marks: 2

The SS exam consists of ____ multiple-choice questions, and must be completed within three hours. Choose one answer. a. 75

b. 100 c. 125 d. 225


Question48 Marks: 2

Information security should be visible to the s. Answer: True

False


Question49 Marks: 2

Once a candidate has accepted a job offer, the ____________________ becomes an important security instrument. Answer: employment contract


Question50

Marks: 2

In most cases, organizations look for a technically qualified information security generalist who has a solid understanding of how an organization operates. Answer: True

False

Correct Marks for this submission: 2/2. Top of Form




Question1 Marks: 2

The ____ mailing list includes announcements and discussion of an open-source IDPS. Choose one answer. a. Nmap-hackers

b. Packet Storm c. Security Focus d. Snort-sigs


Question2 Marks: 2

A maintenance model such as the ISO model deals with methods to manage and operate systems. Answer:

True

False


Question3 Marks: 2

The optimum approach for escalation is based on a thorough integration of the monitoring process into the ____. Choose one answer. a. IDE

b. CERT c. ERP d. IRP


Question4 Marks: 2

The ____ process is designed to find and document the vulnerabilities that may be present because there are misconfigured systems in use within the organization. Choose one answer. a. ASP

b. ISP c. SVP d. PSV


Question5 Marks: 2

As the help desk personnel screen problems, they must also track the activities involved in resolving each complaint in a help desk ____________________system. Answer: information


Question6 Marks: 2

A trouble ticket is closed when a calls about an issue. Answer: True

False


Question7 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ risk is one that is higher than the risk appetite of the organization. Answer: significant


Question8 Marks: 2

The proven cases of real vulnerabilities can be considered vulnerability ____________________. Answer: instances


Question9 Marks: 2

A(n) war game puts a subset of plans in place to create a realistic test environment. Answer:

True

False


Question10 Marks: 2

There are ____ common vulnerability assessment processes. Choose one answer. a. two



Question11 Marks: 2

CERTs stands for computer emergency recovery teams. Answer: True

False


Question12 Marks: 2

As an alternative view of the way data flows into the monitoring process, a(n) ____ approach may prove useful. Choose one answer. a. DTD

b. DFD

c. Schema d. ERP


Question13 Marks: 2

The process of collecting detailed information about devices in a network is often referred to as ____________________. Answer: characterization


Question14 Marks: 2

All systems that are mission critical should be enrolled in PSV measurement. Answer: True

False


Question15 Marks: 2

A performance ____________________ is an expected level of performance against which all subsequent levels of performance are compared. Answer: baseline


Question16 Marks: 2

The primary objective of the planning and risk ____________________ domain is to keep a lookout over the entire information security program.

Answer: assessment


Question17 Marks: 2

The primary goal of the readiness and ____________________ domain is to keep the information security program functioning as designed and to keep it continuously improving over time. Answer: review


Question18 Marks: 2

An effective information security governance program requires constant change. Answer: True

False


Question19 Marks: 2

Detailed ____ on the highest risk warnings can include identifying which vendor updates apply to which vulnerabilities as well as which types of defenses have been found to work against the specific vulnerabilities reported. Choose one answer. a. escalation

b. intelligence c. monitoring d. elimination

Correct


Question20 Marks: 2

ISO 27001 Information Security Handbook: A Guide for Managers provides managerial guidance for the establishment and implementation of an information security program. Answer: True

False


Question21 Marks: 2

A(n) ____________________ analysis is a procedure that compares the current state of a network segment (the systems and services it offers) against a known previous state of that same network segment (the baseline of systems and services). Answer: difference


Question22 Marks: 2

Organizations should perform a(n) ____________________ assessment of their information security programs. Answer: annual


Question23 Marks: 2

The ____ list is intended to facilitate the development of a free network exploration tool. Choose one answer. a. Nmap-hackers

b. Packet Storm c. Security Focus d. Snort-sigs


Question24 Marks: 2

A(n) ____ is a statement of the boundaries of the RA. Choose one answer. a. scope

b. disclaimer c. footer d. head


Question25 Marks: 2

The ____ commercial site focuses on current security tool resources. Choose one answer. a. Nmap-hackers

b. Packet Storm c. Security Laser d. Snort-sigs


Question26 Marks: 2

All telephone numbers controlled by an organization should be tested for modem vulnerability, unless the configuration of the phone equipment on premises can assure that no number can be dialed from the worldwide telephone system. Answer: True

False


Question27 Marks: 2

Rehearsals that closely match reality are called ____________________ games. Answer: w ar


Question28 Marks: 2

The Analysis step of Internet vulnerability assessment is when a knowledgeable and experienced vulnerability analyst screens the test results for the ____________________vulnerabilities logged during scanning. Answer: candidate


Question29 Marks: 2

The steps of the Internet vulnerability assessment include ____, which is when the penetration test engine is unleashed at the scheduled time using the planned target list and test selection. Choose one answer. a. scanning

b. target selection c. test selection d. analysis


Question30 Marks: 2

The primary goal of the ____________________ monitoring domain is to maintain an informed awareness of the state of all of the organization’s networks, information systems, and information security defenses. Answer: internal


Question31 Marks: 2

UN-CERT is a set of moderated mailing lists full of detailed, full-disclosure discussions and announcements about computer security vulnerabilities. Answer: True

False


Question32 Marks: 2

The primary mailing list, called simply ____, provides time-sensitive coverage of emerging vulnerabilities, documenting how they are exploited, and reporting on how to remediate them. Individuals can for the flagship mailing list or any one of the entire family of its mailing lists. Choose one answer. a. Bug

b. Bugfix

c. Buglist d. Bugtraq


Question33 Marks: 2

In ____________________ selection, all areas of the organization’s premises should be scanned with a portable wireless network scanner. Answer: target


Question34 Marks: 2

The ____________________ interconnections are network devices, communications channels, and applications that may not be owned by the organization but are essential to the continued operation of the organization’s partnership with another company. Answer: partner


Question35 Marks: 2

Documentation procedures are not required for configuration and change management processes. Answer: True

False


Question36 Marks: 2

The objective of the external ____________________ domain within the maintenance model is to provide the early awareness of new and emerging threats, threat agents, vulnerabilities, and attacks that the organization needs in order to mount an effective and timely defense. Answer: monitoring


Question37 Marks: 2

An intranet scan starts with an Internet search engine. Answer: True

False


Question38 Marks: 2

The primary goal of the vulnerability assessment and ____________________ domain is to identify specific, documented vulnerabilities and remediate them in a timely fashion. Answer: remediation


Question39 Marks: 2

Digital forensics helps the organization understand what happened and how. Answer: True

False


Question40 Marks: 2

An example of the type of vulnerability exposed via traffic analysis occurs when an organization is trying to determine if all its device signatureshave been adequately masked.

Answer: True

False


Question41 Marks: 2

The ____ vulnerability assessment process is designed to find and document selected vulnerabilities that are likely to be present on the internal network of the organization. Choose one answer. a. intranet

b. Internet c. LAN d. WAN


Question42 Marks: 2

Court decisions generally do not impact agency policy. Answer: True

False


Question43 Marks: 2

An effective security program demands comprehensive and continuous understanding of program and system configuration. Answer: True

False


Question44 Marks: 2

A ____ is the recorded state of a particular revision of a software or hardware configuration item. Choose one answer. a. state

b. version c. configuration d. baseline


Question45 Marks: 2

One approach that can improve the situational awareness of the information security function uses a process known as ____ to quickly identify changes to the internal environment. Choose one answer. a. baseline

b. difference analysis c. differential d. revision


Question46 Marks: 2

CM assists in streamlining change management processes and prevents changes that could detrimentally affect the security posture of a system before they happen. Answer: True

False


Question47 Marks: 2

The ____ vulnerability assessment process is designed to find and document any vulnerability that is present on dial-up modems connected to the organization’s networks. Choose one answer. a. modem

b. phone c. dial-up d. network


Question48 Marks: 2

A key component in the engine that drives change in the information security program is a relatively straightforward process called an information security ____________________ risk assessment. Answer: operational


Question49 Marks: 2

A(n) ____ item is a hardware or software item that is to be modified and revised throughout its life cycle. Choose one answer. a. revision

b. update c. change

d. configuration


Question50 Marks: 2

The ____ is a center of Internet security expertise and is located at the Software Engineering Institute, a federally funded research and development center operated by Carnegie Mellon University. Choose one answer. a. Bug/CERT

b. Bugtraq/CERT c. CC/CERT d. CERT/CC


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